Why does cos(phi1- phi 2 +kX)=cos(kx)??

  • #1
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Main Question or Discussion Point

In the case of two fields interfering with each other when calculating the total electric field, cos (phi1-phi2 + kx) = cos( kx) where kx is the path difference between the two fields.

How does cos (phi1-phi2 +kx)=cos(kx) Isit just algebra?
Screen Shot 2016-05-05 at 15.32.24.png
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
blue_leaf77
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Is it said anything about ##\phi_1-\phi_2##? Those equality can be true if ##\phi_1-\phi_2## is a multiple of ##2\pi##.
 
  • #3
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Earlier on a general interference between two waves is obtained and it is assumed that they have the same phase velocity and so phi1=phi2, and the function collapses. Perhaps this is the case here?
 
  • #4
blue_leaf77
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Is ##\phi = \omega t ##?
 
  • #5
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I dont think it is, as wt is mentioned seperately when phi is mentioned. Phi is mentioned when defining the amplitude of the wave Eo= |Eo|e^iphi{Eo}, where {Eo} is the unit vector.
 
  • #6
vanhees71
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I've no clue, what's discussed here. Do you have two plane waves interfering, i.e., something like
$$\phi=A_0 \cos(\omega t-k x+\phi_1)+A_1 \cos(\omega t-k x+\phi_2)?$$
 

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