Why does dA become r dr dθ in polar coordinates?

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chetzread
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Homework Statement


can someone explain about the formula of the circled part?
Why dA will become r(dr)(dθ)?
MhTV4wv.png

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


A = pi(r^2)
dA will become 2(pi)(r)(dr) ?
why did 2(pi) didnt appear in the equation ?
 
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chetzread said:

Homework Statement


can someone explain about the formula of the circled part?
Why dA will become r(dr)(dθ)?
MhTV4wv.png

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


A = pi(r^2)
dA will become 2(pi)(r)(dr) ?
why did 2(pi) didnt appear in the equation ?
dA = r ⋅ dr ⋅ dθ as can be seen from the diagram below:


polar_coordinates_area_calculation.png


2π has nothing to do with converting dA into its polar equivalent.
 
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chetzread said:
A = pi(r^2)
dA will become 2(pi)(r)(dr)?
The dA you calculated here is the infinitesimal increase in the area of a circle if you increase the radius by dr. In other words, it's the area of a ring of radius r and width dr. It's not the same dA that appears in the integral.
 
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chetzread said:
why did 2(pi) didnt appear in the equation ?
Is it clear to you now that this hasn't happened because the integral reads$$
\displaystyle \iint\limits_R f(x,y)\; dA = \iint\limits_R f(r,\theta)\; r \;dr\;d\theta\quad ?$$Only if ##\ f(r,\theta) = f(r)\ ## i.e. f does not depend on ##\theta##, the integration over ##d\theta## can be carried out (yielding ##2\pi##) and the result is$$
\displaystyle \iint\limits_R f(x,y)\; dA = \int\limits_{r_0}^{r_1} f(r)\; r \;dr\;\int\limits_0^{2\pi} d\theta\quad = 2\pi \int\limits_{r_0}^{r_1} f(r)\; r \;dr\;$$
 
BvU said:
Is it clear to you now that this hasn't happened because the integral reads$$
\displaystyle \iint\limits_R f(x,y)\; dA = \iint\limits_R f(r,\theta)\; r \;dr\;d\theta\quad ?$$Only if ##\ f(r,\theta) = f(r)\ ## i.e. f does not depend on ##\theta##, the integration over ##d\theta## can be carried out (yielding ##2\pi##) and the result is$$
\displaystyle \iint\limits_R f(x,y)\; dA = \int\limits_{r_0}^{r_1} f(r)\; r \;dr\;\int\limits_0^{2\pi} d\theta\quad = 2\pi \int\limits_{r_0}^{r_1} f(r)\; r \;dr\;$$
yes, thanks