Why Does ln(y) = ln(bεax) Cause Issues in Derivation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of the function y = bεax and the confusion surrounding the differentiation process. The correct differentiation yields dy/dx = abεax, but the initial approach incorrectly treats the expression as (be)ax instead of beax. The resolution clarifies that ln(y) should be expressed as ln(b) + ax, leading to the correct differentiation. Participants emphasize the importance of proper logarithmic properties in calculus.

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Elias Waranoi
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I know that deriving y = bεax gives dy/dx = abεax, I also know that the inverse of dx/dy equals dy/dx, so how come I don't get dy/dx = abεax when I do the following:

ln(y) = ln(bεax) = ax ln(bε) -> x = ln(y)/(a ln(bε)) -> dx/dy = 1/(ay ln(bε)) -> dy/dx = ay ln(bε) = abεax ln(bε) ≠ abεax

What am I doing wrong?
 
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Elias Waranoi said:
##\log y = \log \left(be^{ax}\right) = ax \log(be)##
This is where it goes wrong. It should be:
$$\log y = \log \left(be^{ax}\right) = \log b+ax$$
 
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andrewkirk said:
This is where it goes wrong. It should be:
$$\log y = \log \left(be^{ax}\right) = \log b+ax$$

So like this: ln y = ln(bεax) = ln(b) + ax ln(ε) and because ln(ε) = 1 then ln y = ln(b) + ax. Thank you very much
 
Elias Waranoi said:
ln(y) = ln(bεax) = ax ln(bε)

Elias Waranoi said:
So like this: ln y = ln(bεax) = ln(b) + ax ln(ε) and because ln(ε) = 1 then ln y = ln(b) + ax.
The simple answer, and to elaborate on what @andrewkirk said, what you are doing wrong in the first quote above is treating ##be^{ax}## as if it were ##(be)^{ax}## when you take the log. The expressions ##be^{ax}## and ##(be)^{ax}## are different, just as ##2x^3## and ##(2x)^3## are different.

So ##\ln(be^{ax}) = \ln(b) + \ln(e^{ax}) = \ln(b) + ax##.

BTW, you should use the letter 'e' for the exponential base, not ε ("epsilon"). At least that's what I think you mean.
 
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