Why Does the Fundamental Solution of Laplace's Equation Cause Infinity in n=3?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the evaluation of the integral of the fundamental solution of Laplace's equation in three dimensions, specifically addressing the divergence to infinity when \( n=3 \). The integral \(\int_{B(0,\epsilon)}|\Phi(y)|dy\) leads to an infinite result due to the logarithmic singularity at the origin, as shown by the calculation involving the Jacobian transformation. The correct interpretation of the Jacobian in spherical coordinates is crucial for accurate integration. The participants clarify that the error arose from not properly accounting for the change of coordinates in the integration process.

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Homework Statement



From the book Evans-PDE, p.24, equation (12),
It is written that

C ||D^2f||_{L_{\infty}(R^n)} \int_{B(0,\epsilon)}|\Phi(y)|dy<br /> \\ \leq \begin{cases} C \epsilon^2 |\log{}\epsilon| &amp; (n=2) \\ C \epsilon^2 &amp; (n \geq 3) \end{cases}

How is this?

Homework Equations



\Phi(y) = \begin{cases} -\frac{1}{2\pi}\log{}|y| &amp; (n=2) \\ \frac{1}{n(n-2)\alpha(n)} \frac{1}{|y|^{n-2}} &amp; (n \geq 3) \end{cases}
for y \in \mathbb{R}^n-0 (the fundamental solution of Laplace's equation).

\alpha(n) is the volume of the unit ball in \mathbb{R}^n.

C is a constant.

The Attempt at a Solution



Take n=3. Then,

\int_{B(0,\epsilon)}|\Phi(y)|dy = C\int_{0}^{\epsilon}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\frac{1}{r} d\theta d\phi dr

= C \int_{0}^{\epsilon}\frac{1}{r} dr

= C (\log{}(\epsilon)-\log{}(0)) = \infty

What am I doing wrong?
 
Last edited:
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I think you got your Jacobian transformation wrong. If memory serves:
<br /> dxdydz=r^{2}\sin\theta drd\theta d\phi<br />
 
ya you're right. I didn't account for the change of coordinates. thanks.
 

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