Why does the sinc function approach zero as the argument approaches infinity?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the behavior of the sinc function, specifically the limit of sin(vx)/x as v approaches infinity. Participants explore the implications of this limit, particularly in relation to the Dirac delta function and the conditions under which the sinc function approaches zero for non-zero x.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why sin(vx)/x approaches zero for all x≠0 as v approaches infinity, despite sin(vx) being bounded and oscillating between -1 and 1.
  • Another participant suggests that the original inquiry may be confused with sin(1/x) and asserts that sin(x)/x does not relate to the delta function.
  • A clarification is made that the limit of sin(vx)/x as v approaches infinity can be interpreted as a delta function, emphasizing the need to consider integrals involving the function rather than pointwise limits.
  • One participant acknowledges the clarification and expresses understanding of the proof related to the delta function representation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relationship between sin(vx)/x and the delta function, with some asserting the connection while others challenge the interpretation. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the clarity of the original question and the implications of the limit.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of understanding the limit in the context of integrals rather than pointwise behavior, indicating potential limitations in the original framing of the question.

McLaren Rulez
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Consider [itex]sin(vx)/x[/itex] as [itex]v[/itex] approaches infinity. Now, this becomes a delta function and I have seen graphs that show this function as v increases.

My question is the following: I cannot quite see why the function [itex]sin(vx)/x[/itex] becomes zero if x≠0. sin(vx) is bounded and oscillates rapidly between -1 and 1 as x is changed. But the envelope of the function is still 1/x so how come it goes to zero for all x≠0? Can someone prove this result?

Thank you.
 
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I think you're talking about sin(1/x) not, (sinx)/x

Edit: Actually re-reading your post, I realize I have no idea what you're asking.sinx/x is in no way related to the delta function, and does not oscillate between anything, it's just a normal sinx that diminishes as you approach infinity.
Sin(1/x) however does oscillate in a divergent manner as you approach 0, the limit is quite strange and nothing is quite like it.
 
No, it is sin(vx)/x. As v gets larger, it approximates a delta function better. Now, with v→∞, I cannot see why the function is zero if x is non zero.

A similar definition is here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sinc_function where there is a section on how it relates to the dirac delta function.
 
Last edited:
The proper way to show that

[tex]\lim_{v \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin(vx)}{x} = \delta(x)[/tex]

is not to try and show that the left hand side is infinite when x = 0 and zero for non-zero x. That might be true of some representations of the delta function, but really what you need to show is that

[tex]\lim_{v\rightarrow \infty} \int_{-\infty}^\infty dx~\frac{\sin(vx)}{x} f(x) = f(0).[/tex]

Similarly you can show that if the integration region does not contain the origin, the integral is zero.

That is the appropriate sense in which one should interpret "[itex]\lim_{v \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin(vx)}{x} = \delta(x)[/itex]".
 
Thank you Mute. Didn't know that before but yeah, I can prove it according to your definition so I guess it's all good.
 

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