kbaumen
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I'm just curious, why, when solving limits, is 1^\infty considered an indeterminate form? Isn't 1 raised to any power equal to 1? Why isn't it so simple?
The discussion revolves around the concept of why \(1^\infty\) is considered an indeterminate form in the context of limits. Participants explore the implications of approaching the values of 1 and infinity in various functions, examining the nuances involved in limit calculations.
Participants express a range of views regarding the nature of \(1^\infty\) as an indeterminate form, with no clear consensus reached. The discussion reflects differing interpretations of how limits behave in this context.
The discussion highlights the dependence on the speed of approach to the values involved and the importance of considering limits in a neighborhood around a point rather than at the point itself.
╔(σ_σ)╝ said:Well that is a very good question but the problem is that it depends on how fast your function is going to 1 or infinity.
Your function can be going so slowly to 1, in which case the limit goes to 0.
It`s the same as the undetermined form 0/0 the function on top and bottom could approach zero at the same speed and the limit could go to 1.
kbaumen said:Ah, yes, the function never actually reaches the value 1^\infty, since we never consider the function at exatcly x=a, we are just curious about what it does around that point.
Thank you for your answers.