Why Is a Rectangle Considered Closed and Bounded in Volume Proofs?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the theorem that states the outer measure of any rectangle is equal to its volume, specifically addressing why it suffices to consider closed and bounded rectangles in this proof. A closed rectangle is defined as the Cartesian product of closed intervals, represented as $$[a_1,b_1] \times [a_2,b_2] \times \dots \times [a_d,b_d]$$. The participants highlight that open rectangles, defined as $$ (a_1,b_1) \times (a_2,b_2) \times \dots \times (a_d,b_d) $$, can be expressed as unions of closed intervals, reinforcing the necessity of closed and bounded conditions for the proof.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of closed and open sets in topology
  • Familiarity with the concept of outer measure in measure theory
  • Knowledge of Cartesian products of intervals
  • Basic principles of volume calculation in higher dimensions
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  • Study the properties of closed and open sets in topology
  • Learn about outer measure and its applications in measure theory
  • Explore the concept of Cartesian products in multidimensional spaces
  • Investigate the relationship between measure and volume in mathematical proofs
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Mathematicians, students of advanced calculus, and anyone interested in the foundations of measure theory and geometric analysis will benefit from this discussion.

mathmari
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Hey! :o

I am looking at the proof of the theorem that for any rectangle the outer measure is equal to the volume.

At the beginning of the proof there is the following sentence:

It is enough to look at the case where the rectangle R is closed and bounded.

Why does it stand?? (Wondering)

Is it maybe as followed??A closed rectangle is
$$[a_1,b_1] \times [a_2,b_2] \times \dots \times [a_d,b_d]$$

An open rectangle is
$$(a_1,b_1) \times (a_2,b_2) \times \dots \times (a_d,b_d)$$
which can be written as a union of closed intervals.
 
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mathmari said:
Is it maybe as followed??A closed rectangle is
$$[a_1,b_1] \times [a_2,b_2] \times \dots \times [a_d,b_d]$$

An open rectangle is
$$(a_1,b_1) \times (a_2,b_2) \times \dots \times (a_d,b_d)$$
which can be written as a union of closed intervals.

Or is there an other reason, why it is sufficient to suppose that $R$ is closed and bounded to prove that $m^*(R)=v(R)$?? (Wondering)
 

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