LightbulbSun said:
The guy in the video is me.
Nice face!
Their definitions for knowledge and belief though were contradictory.
Maybe what they're saying is that it's an assumption that has been substantiated, but why would knowledge be interchangeable with belief?
I wasn't able to extract that from the definitions. Just the opposite, in fact.
Especially when they say that belief is distinct from knowledge. They have three different definitions for belief. The first two would never apply to knowledge. How would actual knowledge be just a subjective mental state? Subjective is personal, not universal.
Belief: Conviction or trust that a claim is true; an individual's subjective mental state; distinct from knowledge.
Are these three separate definitions of belief? I thought they were just one but with different aspects separated by semicolons. All three seem to go together because the last two aren't satisfactory by themselves. Reading the last two together also can't define belief without tying back to the first. "An individual's subjective mental state; distinct from knowledge." could as easily be anxiety, or happiness, or memories of a weekend in Tahoe, or what have you.
OK, looking at two the definitions given for
knowledge and belief:
Knowledge: True Belief.
Belief: Conviction or trust that a claim is true; an individual's subjective mental state; distinct from knowledge.
I don't find these contradictory. Maybe I'm just taking too shallow an interpretation of this, but I think all that is being said is that knowledge and beliefs are not necesarily the same thing. It seems that they are describing knowledge as a subset of beliefs. All your items of knowledge are beliefs, but not all your beliefs are knowledge. Something like: all apples are fruit, but not all fruits are apples.
This is in their wording, but they said that if Hume was correct then "there is no empirical evidence for the existence of cause and effect." If such is the case then Hume's proposition is extremely flawed.
From the little bit I know about Hume, his idea was "how do you know if you're observing a causal relationship between two events or just perceiving a mere coincidence between two events that
appear causally related?". We observe an event following another event, but we don't observe causal mechanism between the two - we infer it. An example he used was of a billiard ball hitting another billiard ball. The first ball makes contact; the second moves away. The transfer of kinetic energy is not something observable, but we still assume that the first ball caused the second to move. Our perception is biased by the consistency of one event following another on many,many occasions. I can't defend Hume, because I am admittedly a shallow reader of his work, but I believe this is the general idea. He does have his critics, by the way.
Even if A was really caused by C, we could still determine this with cause and effect so I'm not sure what Hume or the book is trying to get at.
Can we really determine it? Or just infer it, because over and over again, that appears to be what's happening?
I think it's great that you pick this stuff apart. I'm grateful because it's been helpful to me and encouraged me to go and do more reading. But why didn't you aim these questions at your philosophy professor? If I had a bunch of questions and couldn't get decent explanations from the prof, I think I'd want my money back.