I Why is Scalar Massless Wave Equation Conformally Invariant?

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The scalar massless wave equation is mathematically shown to be conformally invariant, although this proof can be complex and lacks physical clarity. A more intuitive understanding highlights that massless fields do not possess inherent scales of energy or length, allowing waves of all frequencies to propagate uniformly, maintaining the light cone structure. Invariance under the conformal group, which maps light cones to themselves, contrasts with massive fields that have a defined energy scale, leading to invariance only under the Poincare group. This distinction emphasizes that the massless wave equation's primary invariant is the light cone, aligning with conformal invariance principles. Overall, the discussion seeks a deeper physical intuition behind this mathematical property.
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I wish to gain a physical intuitive understanding as to why the scalar massless wave equation is conformally invariant.
It can be shown mathematically that the scalar massless wave equation is conformally invariant. However, doing so is rather tedious and muted in terms of physical understanding. As such, is there a physically intuitive explanation as to why the scalar massless wave equation is conformally invariant?
 
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It's easier seen in energy-momentum representation, i.e., with
$$\phi(x)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^4} \mathrm{d}^4 p \exp(-\mathrm{i} p_{\mu} x^{\mu}) \tilde{\phi}(p)$$
the solution of the massless wave equation implies that ##p_{\mu} p^{\mu}=0##, i.e., ##p^{\mu}## must be light-like.

Obviously the equation is invariant under the Poincare group, i.e., under Lorentz boosts, rotations and translations, but here you only need to preserve the light cone in momentum space not the Minkowski product between all vectors. So besides the Lorentz boosts and rotations (building together the proper orthochronous Lorentz). The corresponding symmetry group mapping light cones to themselves is larger, and that's the conformal group. Wikipedia gives a nice introduction

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conformal_symmetry
 
Thomas1 said:
is there a physically intuitive explanation as to why the scalar massless wave equation is conformally invariant?
One way to look at it is that a massless field does not have any built-in scale of energy or length; waves of the field of all possible frequencies/wavelengths are possible and "look the same" from the standpoint of the physics of how they propagate. The only invariant about the propagation of the waves is the light cones. So the invariance property you would expect the wave equation to have is the one that only preserves the light cones, i.e., conformal invariance.

A massive field, by contrast, has a built-in energy/length scale, given by its invariant mass. So you would expect its wave equation to only be invariant under the more restricted group of transformations that preserves, not just the light cones, but the invariant mass, i.e., the Poincare group.
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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