andyrk Messages 658 Reaction score 5 Thread starter Jun 17, 2013 #1 A rope is tied at one end then rotated in a vertical circle. Why do we take the tension at the free end of the rope as 0(Boundary Condition)?
A rope is tied at one end then rotated in a vertical circle. Why do we take the tension at the free end of the rope as 0(Boundary Condition)?
berkeman Admin Messages 69,783 Reaction score 25,632 Jun 17, 2013 #2 andyrk said: A rope is tied at one end then rotated in a vertical circle. Why do we take the tension at the free end of the rope as 0(Boundary Condition)? What is the end of the rope pulling on?
andyrk said: A rope is tied at one end then rotated in a vertical circle. Why do we take the tension at the free end of the rope as 0(Boundary Condition)? What is the end of the rope pulling on?
andyrk Messages 658 Reaction score 5 Jun 17, 2013 #3 Nothing, so this is a silly doubt then I guess but for tension to occur there should be actual contact present between the string and some other object, right? Which in this case is missing from the free end of the rope?
Nothing, so this is a silly doubt then I guess but for tension to occur there should be actual contact present between the string and some other object, right? Which in this case is missing from the free end of the rope?