Why is the friction greater on rear wheels than front wheels in a car?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the differences in friction experienced by the rear and front wheels of a car, particularly in the context of acceleration and weight distribution. Participants explore the underlying physics principles related to friction, motion, and forces acting on the vehicle.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the assumption that weight is equally distributed on the front and rear wheels, considering the effects of acceleration. Some explore scenarios of uniform speed and pure rolling motion, while others discuss the implications of friction in different driving conditions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with various interpretations being explored regarding the role of friction in different scenarios. Participants have provided insights into how acceleration affects frictional forces, and there is an ongoing examination of the conditions under which friction may be zero.

Contextual Notes

Some participants reference hypothetical scenarios, such as pure rolling motion and the absence of friction, to illustrate their points. There is also mention of external factors like air resistance that complicate real-world applications of the discussed concepts.

lavankohsa
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My book says option a,b,c is correct. I am able to understand the option a and b but why the friction has larger magnitude on rear wheels than the front wheels.

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The Attempt at a Solution


According to me it should be same because weight of the car is equally distributed on front and rear wheels.
 
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lavankohsa said:
because weight of the car is equally distributed on front and rear wheels.
It is not (see motorbikes for extreme examples), but that is not the point: the car is accelerating, so the forces are not balanced.
 
mfb said:
motorbikes for extreme examples

Ok. and what about if the car is moving with uniform speed then front and rear wheel should have equal friction ?
 
If you neglect air resistance (something you cannot do for real cars), yes.
 
But if car is in pure rolling motion, then the friction is zero i guess .
 
In an even more hypothetical example where there is no friction at all and the car is going at constant speed, friction is zero.
 
lavankohsa post: 5007298 said:
According to me it should be same because weight of the car is equally distributed on front and rear wheels.
Even if the weight were equally distributed, that only says the maximum frictional force is the same on each. In rolling motion, the actual frictional force is anything from 0 to maximum (static) frictional force (in any direction).
The actual frictional force on the non-driving wheels is typically very low, since it only needs to be sufficient to overcome rolling resistance of the tyres and provide their rotational acceleration. The actual frictional force of the driving wheels has to overcome that of the non-driving wheels plus provide for the acceleration of the vehicle.
 
lavankohsa said:
But if car is in pure rolling motion, then the friction is zero i guess .
Only if the car is coasting. If it is accelerating on the flat or maintaining a constant speed on a hill (or moving in any way that an engineless cart would not) then there must be some friction.

Edit: if it is accelerating at all there must be friction to provide the angular acceleration of the wheels, so that includes coasting up or down hill.
 
Last edited:
Thanks all for reply
 

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