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In the article "Why does light have invarient speed?" on PF (first URL in attached file), there is a statement that for photons,
[tex]
m_0 = m \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}
[/tex]
is [tex]0[/tex] since [tex]v = c[/tex]. (I'm not sure if the author is stating this or quoting somebody else.) Is this a valid argument? A different source (second URL in attached file) gives a more complex argument, and mentions experiments to determine upper bounds on the rest mass of photons. If the argument were so simple, why does Baez go to the trouble and mention the possibility that it isn't true?
[tex]
m_0 = m \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}
[/tex]
is [tex]0[/tex] since [tex]v = c[/tex]. (I'm not sure if the author is stating this or quoting somebody else.) Is this a valid argument? A different source (second URL in attached file) gives a more complex argument, and mentions experiments to determine upper bounds on the rest mass of photons. If the argument were so simple, why does Baez go to the trouble and mention the possibility that it isn't true?