I assume you're talking about restricting the domain of a function that is not one-to-one to a domain on which the function is one-to-one in order to find the inverse of that function. A function takes an input, and maps it to an output. The function's inverse is a mapping of the original function's outputs to its inputs.
Consider the function:
$$f(x)=x^2$$
It's not one-to one because it maps both $a$ and $-a$ to $a^2$. So, without restricting the domain, the inverse would map $a^2$ to two inputs (the outputs for the inverse), and a function should map it a unique output for any given input. So, if we restrict the domain of $f$ to $0\le x$ or $x\le0$, there will be no ambiguity in the outputs of the inverse function.
Does that make sense?