Why there must be time-varying magnet to induce current into conductor?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the necessity of a time-varying magnetic field to induce current in a conductor, as described by Maxwell's equations. Specifically, it highlights that the rotation of the electric field, dictated by the time derivative of the magnetic field, results in a non-zero electromotive force in a closed circuit. This phenomenon is a direct consequence of the mathematical formulation of electromagnetism, which asserts that only time-varying fields can induce current. The conversation also touches on the fundamental nature of Maxwell's equations and their implications regarding the speed of field influences.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maxwell's equations
  • Familiarity with electromotive force (EMF)
  • Knowledge of electric and magnetic field interactions
  • Basic concepts of gauge theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and implications of Maxwell's equations
  • Explore the concept of electromotive force (EMF) in closed circuits
  • Investigate the principles of gauge theory, particularly Abelian gauge theory
  • Examine the limitations of field influences, specifically the speed of light
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, electrical engineers, and students of electromagnetism seeking to deepen their understanding of the relationship between time-varying fields and induced currents.

scientist91
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Answer please. Thank you.
 
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Because!

There are Maxwell's laws of electromagnetism which tell you that the rotation of the electric field is given by the time derivative of the magnetic field, and it is the rotation of the electic field which will give you a non-zero electromotive force in a closed conductor circuit and hence induce a current.
But that's nothing else, finally, but the mathematical statement that a time-varying field induces a current. So it doesn't give a *reason* for it, it just *states* that this is so.
So then the question becomes: why are the Maxwell equations the way they are ? Now, one can think of a few "answers" to that one (Abelian gauge theory for instance), but again, that's just, again, reformulating the statement in other terms. In the end, it is just, well, because.
 
Since no known field influence moves faster than the speed of light, there will always be a time variance. Even if a theoretical field expressed at 1000x the speed of light, there would be a time variance.
 

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