- #1
Avichal
- 295
- 0
f(n) is defined as 11x22x33...xnn
Then it seems as if f(n)/(f(r).f(n-r)) is always an integer for 0 < r < n.
I tried a few cases. Its true for them. Is it always true? I cannot seem to figure out any ways to prove it.
Then it seems as if f(n)/(f(r).f(n-r)) is always an integer for 0 < r < n.
I tried a few cases. Its true for them. Is it always true? I cannot seem to figure out any ways to prove it.