Why would we ignore initial angular velocity in equation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the angular motion of a grinding wheel with a mass of 1.15 kg and a diameter of 22.0 cm, initially spinning at 20.0 revolutions per second. When power is cut, the wheel experiences a constant angular acceleration of -1.57 rad/s², taking 80.0 seconds to come to a complete stop. During this deceleration, the wheel completes 800 revolutions. The equations used include ωf = ωo + αt and θ = θ0 + ωot + 0.5αt², with a clarification on the assumption of ω0 being zero for the calculation of revolutions.

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bob tran
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Homework Statement


A 1.15-kg grinding wheel 22.0 cm in diameter is spinning counterclockwise at a rate of 20.0 revolutions per second. When the power to the grinder is turned off, the grinding wheel slows with constant angular acceleration and takes 80.0 s to come to a rest.
(a) What was the angular acceleration (in rad/s2) of the grinding wheel as it came to rest if we take a counterclockwise rotation as positive?
A: -1.57 rad/s2
(b) How many revolutions did the wheel make during the time it was coming to rest?
A: 800 revolutions

Homework Equations


ωfo+αt
θ=θ0ot+0.5αt2

The Attempt at a Solution


(a) <br /> \omega_f=\omega_0+\alpha t\\<br /> 0 = (20 * 2\pi) + 80\alpha\\<br /> \alpha = -\frac{20 * 2\pi}{80}\\<br /> \alpha = -1.57 \frac{\texttt{rad}}{\texttt{s}^2}<br />
(b) This is where I am confused. Why do we assume w0=0 to get the answer?<br /> \theta = \omega_0 t + \frac{1}{2} t^2 \alpha\\<br /> \theta = \frac{1}{2} t^2 \alpha\\<br /> \theta = \frac{1}{2} (80)^2 (\frac{-1.57}{2\pi})\\<br /> \theta = 800 \ \texttt{revolutions}<br />
 
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There are two forms of that equation, ##\theta=\omega_0 t+\frac 12 \alpha t^2## or ##\theta=\omega_f t-\frac 12 \alpha t^2##.
In the present case, it would have been natural to use the second form. Note that alpha as calculated is negative.
But by considering time in reverse you can swap ##\omega_0## and ##\omega_f## and negate the signs on theta and alpha.
 
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