nonequilibrium
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Is there an insightful reason for the fact x*y''(x) + y'(x) + y(x) = 0 can go "bad" in x = 0 and y''(x) + x*y'(x) + y(x) = 0 doesn't?
Why xy''+y=0 a problem but y''+xy=0 not?
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Because, if a function misbehaves, its higher derivatives will misbehave even more strongly.
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because the "lead coefficient" X in the first one is not a unit.
the same thing happens in alkgebraic geometry with equations like xy^2 + xy + 1 = 0.
i.e. as a function of y, it is quadratic for all x except x = 0. so projection on the x-axis is two to one except over x=0 where the graph of the curve goes off to infinity.
the same thing happens in alkgebraic geometry with equations like xy^2 + xy + 1 = 0.
i.e. as a function of y, it is quadratic for all x except x = 0. so projection on the x-axis is two to one except over x=0 where the graph of the curve goes off to infinity.
Dickfore
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Is the possible to have an arbitraray value for y'(0) if y(0) is given?
JJacquelin
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x*y''(x) + y'(x) + y(x) = 0 has two families of solutions :
One is the Bessel function of the first kind which is equal to 1 in x=0.
The other is the Bessel function of second kind whiich is equivalent to a logarithmic function in x close to 0.
It's strange to say that the logarithm go "bad" ! It behaves just like a logarithm usually behaves.
I cannot understand where is the problem.
