- #1
Adesh
- 735
- 191
- TL;DR Summary
- If I have an interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## and if it's length ##x_i - x_{i-1}## is made as small as we desire then will we have ##M_i = m_i##?
We define :
$$M_i = sup \{f(x) : x \in [x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
$$m_i = inf \{f(x) : x \in [ x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
Now, if we make the length of the interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## vanishingly small, then would we have ##M_i = m_i##? I have reasons for believing so because as the size of the interval is decreasing we will be having less choice for ##inf## and ##sup## and therefore ##inf## will increase and ##sup## will decrease, so can we made them arbitrarily close by taking a sufficiently small lengthed interval?
Thank You.
$$M_i = sup \{f(x) : x \in [x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
$$m_i = inf \{f(x) : x \in [ x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
Now, if we make the length of the interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## vanishingly small, then would we have ##M_i = m_i##? I have reasons for believing so because as the size of the interval is decreasing we will be having less choice for ##inf## and ##sup## and therefore ##inf## will increase and ##sup## will decrease, so can we made them arbitrarily close by taking a sufficiently small lengthed interval?
Thank You.