Smurf said:
No, Correlation is not Causation. Bennett's statement is racist because it implies/presummposes/leads to infer that blacks cause crime. Which is racist, and unproven.
If a black person commits a crime, is he not the cause of the crime? Actually, even if the answer is no, that doesn't make Bennett's statement false. Without the criminal there can be no crime, even if that criminal has absolutely no will and is not the cause of his own actions.
Note: It's not just that there exists a correlation between the number of blacks in a given area and the crime rate of that area; it is that blacks are actually committing crimes at a higher rate than other races.
If you generalize his statement to its logical end, we can restate it as "If we remove group X of people from population Y, with group X being the group that commits crimes at the highest rate of any group in population Y, then we will lower the crime rate for population Y." We can arbitarily choose any classification scheme by which we can assign people to groups, and find a scheme that identifies a causative factor. In this particular case, we isolate a racial scheme, and find that, according to this scheme, the group that commits crimes at the highest rate is blacks.
This can get a little tricky here, because there get to be a lot of grey areas. Is being black actually a causative factor in the fact that blacks commit crimes at a higher rate than other races? Well, what are some of the factors that are known to cause criminal behavior? A couple:
-Being raised by abusive parents.
-Being born into poverty.
-Growing up in a crime-ridden neighborhood.
-Generally becoming acculturated at a young age into a society wherein crime is commonplace.
Now we simply ask ourselves - does being born black make one more likely to be born into the above circumstances? If the answer is yes, then being born black means that one is more likely to become a criminal than someone who is not born black. This is simple probability; it is not racism.