tarheelborn
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Show that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r)==(-1)^r*r!(mod p) for r=1, 2, ..., p-1. I am having trouble getting this proof started. Can you please give me some direction? Thank you.
The discussion centers on proving Wilson's Theorem, specifically that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r) ≡ (-1)^r * r! (mod p) for r = 1, 2, ..., p-1. The proof begins by recognizing that multiplying the terms results in multiples of p, leaving the constant term, which simplifies to (-1)^r * r! (mod p). Additionally, Fermat's Little Theorem is applied, establishing that a polynomial p(x) = x^(p-1) - 1 has roots at integers 1 through p-1, leading to the conclusion that (p-1)! ≡ (-1)^(p-1) (mod p).
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, number theorists, and students studying modular arithmetic and combinatorial proofs will benefit from this discussion.