Wilson's Theorem Proof Help for p-1 to p-r Modulo p

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving Wilson's Theorem, specifically that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r) ≡ (-1)^r * r! (mod p) for r = 1, 2, ..., p-1. The proof begins by recognizing that multiplying the terms results in multiples of p, leaving the constant term, which simplifies to (-1)^r * r! (mod p). Additionally, Fermat's Little Theorem is applied, establishing that a polynomial p(x) = x^(p-1) - 1 has roots at integers 1 through p-1, leading to the conclusion that (p-1)! ≡ (-1)^(p-1) (mod p).

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tarheelborn
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Show that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r)==(-1)^r*r!(mod p) for r=1, 2, ..., p-1. I am having trouble getting this proof started. Can you please give me some direction? Thank you.
 
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Well...first note that if you multiply out then every term in the resulting sum will be a multiple of p, and hence will disappear mod p. So all you really need to be concerned with is the constant term: (-1)(-2)...(-r).
 
So something like
-1 * -2 * ... * -r == (-1)(-2)...(-r)(mod p)
== (-1)^r(1*28...*r)(mod p)
== (-1)^r * r! (mod p)
and we are done, right?

Thank you.
 
By Fermat's Little Theorem, a^{p-1}-1\equiv 0 mod p. Define a polynomial p(x)=x^{p-1}-1, and note that q is satisfied for x=1,2,...,p-1, and that these are all the roots.

So we can then write q(x)=(x-1)(x-2)\cdots(x-(p-1)). By changing the order of subtraction in each factor, we can make a related polynomial q'(x)=(1-x)(2-x)\cdots((p-1)-x)=(-1)^{n-1}q(x).

What happens when we evaluate at zero? q'(0)=(1)(2)\cdots(p-1)=(-1)^{n-1}q(0)=(-1)^n. I.e., (p-1)!\equiv(-1)^n mod p.

It's a simple step from there to the result you need.
 
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