Wilson's Theorem Proof Help for p-1 to p-r Modulo p

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the congruence relation \((p-1)(p-2)...(p-r) \equiv (-1)^r r! \mod p\) for integers \(r\) ranging from 1 to \(p-1\). The participants explore various approaches to establish this proof, touching on concepts from number theory and polynomial roots.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant requests guidance on starting the proof for the given congruence relation.
  • Another participant suggests that when multiplying out the terms, all terms will be multiples of \(p\) and thus vanish modulo \(p\), leaving only the constant term to consider.
  • A further reply proposes that the product \(-1 \times -2 \times ... \times -r\) simplifies to \((-1)^r \times r!\) modulo \(p\), indicating that this leads to the desired result.
  • Another participant introduces Fermat's Little Theorem and discusses a polynomial \(p(x) = x^{p-1} - 1\), noting that it has roots at integers from 1 to \(p-1\) and explores a related polynomial \(q'(x)\) to derive a connection to \((p-1)!\) modulo \(p\).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion features multiple approaches to the proof, with no consensus reached on a single method. Participants present differing perspectives and techniques without resolving which is the most effective.

Contextual Notes

Participants rely on various mathematical properties and theorems, such as Fermat's Little Theorem, but the discussion does not clarify all assumptions or the implications of each approach.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in number theory, particularly those studying modular arithmetic and proofs involving factorials and polynomial roots, may find this discussion beneficial.

tarheelborn
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Show that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r)==(-1)^r*r!(mod p) for r=1, 2, ..., p-1. I am having trouble getting this proof started. Can you please give me some direction? Thank you.
 
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Well...first note that if you multiply out then every term in the resulting sum will be a multiple of p, and hence will disappear mod p. So all you really need to be concerned with is the constant term: (-1)(-2)...(-r).
 
So something like
-1 * -2 * ... * -r == (-1)(-2)...(-r)(mod p)
== (-1)^r(1*28...*r)(mod p)
== (-1)^r * r! (mod p)
and we are done, right?

Thank you.
 
By Fermat's Little Theorem, [tex]a^{p-1}-1\equiv 0[/tex] mod p. Define a polynomial [tex]p(x)=x^{p-1}-1[/tex], and note that [tex]q[/tex] is satisfied for x=1,2,...,p-1, and that these are all the roots.

So we can then write [tex]q(x)=(x-1)(x-2)\cdots(x-(p-1))[/tex]. By changing the order of subtraction in each factor, we can make a related polynomial [tex]q'(x)=(1-x)(2-x)\cdots((p-1)-x)=(-1)^{n-1}q(x)[/tex].

What happens when we evaluate at zero? [tex]q'(0)=(1)(2)\cdots(p-1)=(-1)^{n-1}q(0)=(-1)^n[/tex]. I.e., [tex](p-1)!\equiv(-1)^n[/tex] mod p.

It's a simple step from there to the result you need.
 
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