tarheelborn
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Show that (p-1)(p-2)...(p-r)==(-1)^r*r!(mod p) for r=1, 2, ..., p-1. I am having trouble getting this proof started. Can you please give me some direction? Thank you.
The discussion revolves around proving the congruence relation \((p-1)(p-2)...(p-r) \equiv (-1)^r r! \mod p\) for integers \(r\) ranging from 1 to \(p-1\). The participants explore various approaches to establish this proof, touching on concepts from number theory and polynomial roots.
The discussion features multiple approaches to the proof, with no consensus reached on a single method. Participants present differing perspectives and techniques without resolving which is the most effective.
Participants rely on various mathematical properties and theorems, such as Fermat's Little Theorem, but the discussion does not clarify all assumptions or the implications of each approach.
Readers interested in number theory, particularly those studying modular arithmetic and proofs involving factorials and polynomial roots, may find this discussion beneficial.