Writing a squared observable in Dirac notation

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around expressing the expectation value of a squared observable in Dirac notation, specifically in the context of quantum mechanics. Participants explore the relationship between wave notation and Dirac notation for operators and their expectation values.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the correct form of the expectation value for a squared observable, questioning the notation and definitions used. There are attempts to clarify the distinction between the expectation value of an operator squared and the square of the expectation value.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on the correct Dirac notation for the expectation value of the squared operator. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of Hermitian operators and how they affect the expressions being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the operator being Hermitian in their discussions, which influences the properties of the expectation values being considered.

Zero1010
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Homework Statement
I need help writing in Dirac notation
Relevant Equations
##<A>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \Psi^*(x) \hat A \Psi (x) dx ##
##<A> = <\Psi|\hat A|\Psi>##
##<A^2>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty |\Psi^*(x)|^2 \hat A^2 dx ##
Edited after post below:

Hi,

I need to show that the square of the expectation value of an observable takes a certain form in Dirac notation.

I know in wave notation that the expectation value is a sandwich integral which looks like this:

##<A>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \Psi^*(x) \hat A \Psi (x) dx ##

Which is written in Dirac notation as:

##<A> = <\Psi|\hat A|\Psi>##

And the expectation value of a squared observable is written as:

##<A^2>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \Psi^*(x) \hat A^2 \Psi(x) dx ##

But I am not sure how to write this in Dirac notation.

Thanks for any help and hopefully this makes sense.
 
Last edited:
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Zero1010 said:
And the expectation value of a squared observable is written as:

##<A^2>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty |\Psi^*(x)|^2 \hat A^2 dx ##

This can't be right. You have a number on the LHS and an operator on the RHS. It should be:

##<A^2>=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \Psi^*(x) \hat A^2 \Psi (x) dx ##

Note also that this is the expectation value of the square of the observable/operator and not to be confused with ##\langle A \rangle^2##, which is the square of the expectation value.
 
Thanks for the heads up.

I was looking at the expectation value from my textbook (see image) which is obviously different. Thanks
 

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Zero1010 said:
Thanks for the heads up.

I was looking at the expectation value from my textbook (see image) which is obviously different. Thanks

If you have the position operator, or the position operator squared, then we have:

##\Psi^*(x) \hat x^2 \Psi(x) = \Psi^*(x) x^2 \Psi(x) = |\Psi(x)|^2x^2##

But, this does not hold for a general operator ##\hat A##. For example, if we have the differential operator:

##\Psi^*(x) \hat D \Psi(x) = \Psi^*(x) \frac{d\Psi}{dx}(x) \ne |\Psi(x)|^2 \frac{d}{dx}##
 
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Ok that makes sense.

The operator I am dealing with is Hermitian which is important later in the question I'm working on.
 
So in Dirac notation is it just written as:

##<\Psi(x)|\hat A^2|\Psi(x)>##
 
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Zero1010 said:
So in Dirac notation is it just written as:

##<\Psi(x)|\hat A^2|\Psi(x)>##

Yes, that's the expectation value for the operator ##\hat A^2##. Look at it this way: you could write ##\hat B = \hat A^2##, then:

##\langle A^2 \rangle = \langle B \rangle = \langle \Psi | \hat B |\Psi \rangle = \langle \Psi | \hat A^2 |\Psi \rangle ##
 
Ok. Thanks for your help so far its been great.

One last thing, does this make sense (hopefully):

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A^2|\Psi>##

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A \hat A|\Psi>##

The operate on the right acts on Psi so:

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A|\hat A\Psi>##

Since ##\hat A## is Hermitian (therefore - ##<f|\hat A g> = <\hat A f| g>##):

##<A^2>=<\hat A \psi|\hat A\Psi>##
 
Zero1010 said:
Ok. Thanks for your help so far its been great.

One last thing, does this make sense (hopefully):

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A^2|\Psi>##

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A \hat A|\Psi>##

The operate on the right acts on Psi so:

##<A^2>=<\psi|\hat A|\hat A\Psi>##

Since ##\hat A## is Hermitian (therefore - ##<f|\hat A g> = <\hat A f| g>##):

##<A^2>=<\hat A \psi|\hat A\Psi>##

Yes. In general:

##\langle \Psi|\hat A \hat B|\Psi \rangle = \langle (\hat A^{\dagger} \Psi)|(\hat B\Psi) \rangle##
 
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Cool.

Thanks again for your help.
 

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