Calcotron
- 17
- 0
Prove the formula A = \frac{1}{2}r^{2}\theta for the area of a sector of a circle with radius r and central angle \theta. (Hint: Assume 0 < \theta < \frac{\pi}{2} and place the center of the circle at the origin so it has the equation x^{2} + y^{2} = r^{2} . Then A is the sum of the area of the triangle POQ and the area of the region PQR in the figure.)
So the area of the triangle is 1/2bh which comes to \frac{1}{2}r^{2}cos\theta sin\theta
Now, for the other region I used the integral \int\sqrt{r^{2} - x^{2}}dx
I make x = r sin\theta
I plug that in under the square root sign and get r cos\theta.
I changed the limits of integration from r cos\theta to r, to pi/4 to pi/2.
Now since dx = r cos\thetad\theta the integral for the area of the second region is \int r^{2}cos^{2}\theta d\theta. Now here is where the problem starts, I pull the r^2 out of the equation and use half angle theorem on the cos^2 theta. After his I end up with \frac{1}{2}r^{2}(\theta+\frac{1}{2}sin2\thetacos\theta) with limits pi/4 to pi/2. Now I am assuming there should be a negative equivalent somewhere here to cross out the first area and leave me with just \frac{1}{2}r^{2}\thetabut I don't see how I can get it to work, especially after I finish integration and sub the limits in at which point I will lose the trig ratios. Can anyone help me finish this question up?
So the area of the triangle is 1/2bh which comes to \frac{1}{2}r^{2}cos\theta sin\theta
Now, for the other region I used the integral \int\sqrt{r^{2} - x^{2}}dx
I make x = r sin\theta
I plug that in under the square root sign and get r cos\theta.
I changed the limits of integration from r cos\theta to r, to pi/4 to pi/2.
Now since dx = r cos\thetad\theta the integral for the area of the second region is \int r^{2}cos^{2}\theta d\theta. Now here is where the problem starts, I pull the r^2 out of the equation and use half angle theorem on the cos^2 theta. After his I end up with \frac{1}{2}r^{2}(\theta+\frac{1}{2}sin2\thetacos\theta) with limits pi/4 to pi/2. Now I am assuming there should be a negative equivalent somewhere here to cross out the first area and leave me with just \frac{1}{2}r^{2}\thetabut I don't see how I can get it to work, especially after I finish integration and sub the limits in at which point I will lose the trig ratios. Can anyone help me finish this question up?
Attachments
Last edited: