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Homework Statement
The sequence fn: [-1,1] -> R, fn(x)= nxe-nx2 converges pointwise to f(x)= 0, x in [-1,1]. Can you verify the following:
limn->\infty (\int^{1}_{0}fn(x)dx) = \int^{1}_{0} (limn->\infty fn(x))dx
Homework Equations
Theorem: If fn is continuous on the interval D for every n and fn converges uniformly to f on D=[a,b], then
limn->\infty (\int^{a}_{x}fn(t)dt) = \int^{a}_{x} (limn->\infty fn(t))dt = \int^{a}_{x}f(t)dt) for every x in D.
The Attempt at a Solution
The main idea is to find out whether the sequence is uniformly convergent on D= [0,1]. fn = nxe-nx2 is continuous for every n because et is always continuous. I tried something like this to verify uniform convergence:
fn(x) is uniformly convergent on D if there is a positive number \epsilon >0 and an index N, so that
|fn(x) -f(x)|<\epsilon for every n\geqN and every x in [0,1]
\Leftrightarrow |nxe-nx2-0|<\epsilon
\Leftrightarrow nxe-nx2 <\epsilon
But I don't know how to go forward. How can I show that the greater the index n gets, the closer fn gets to 0? I tried comparison but couldn't find any sequence, the term of which would be greater than fn so that the sequence would still converge.