student34
- 639
- 21
In my very limited mathematical knowledge, at first the answer seems to be as N →∞ 1/N which we know equals zero. But, what if the number is 7, and that is what was picked?
coolul007 said:do you mean mentally? "I'm thinking of a number." or do you mean out of a drum, etc. If it's a physical draw you have the answer, if it is a mental game then the number chosen is the finite set, and then becomes a chicken and egg problem. Which came first the finite set or the number chosen that created the finite set.
micromass said:If you want to talk about a probability of doing something, then you need to have a probability distribution. So, what is the distribution you're using?
Also, probability 0 doesn't mean that something is impossible.
Is there no uniform distribution because there is no midpoint?MarneMath said:Saying that the natural numbers have a uniform distribution from 1 to infinity doesn't even really make sense. Last time I checked there is no uniform distribution on the natural numbers.
student34 said:Are you saying that there are different kinds of 0 probabilities? Is an impossible probability like saying: what is the probability of 6 being the right number out of numbers 1 to 5?
dm164 said:This is an interesting question more philosophical perhaps. So, what is the probability of any number? well it would have to be 0 based on the limit lim N→∞ 1/N. Like what is the probability I would say a number never in all history been said or written? Well it would still be 0. But, the probability must be increasing if I exclude all numbers been said. So first it is probability of zero, but it's increasing. But, infinite is what I like to call the a dynamic number, so even when you remove a number it has a replacement in the sense that it's infinite. Any way you look at it. It is most reasonable to conclude a probability of 0 does not mean it's impossible, but then what does a probability of 1 mean? ... This is where the universe ends.
Do YOU understand that this is NOT always true? And every answer here has been saying that.utkarshraj said:Probability 0 means that it sure that the event "will not" happen, e.g. like probability of getting a red ball from bag of blue and green balls.
Probability 1 means that it is sure that event "will" happen, e.g. like probability of getting 2 red balls from bag of 2 red balls
But what your question is little strange, because probability cannot be taken from indefinite sets there has to be a finite set of reference.
Are you understanding this...
PM me for more help!