- #1
AJKing
- 104
- 2
Question 1
When I take the derivatives of the Lagrangian, specifically of the form:
[itex]\frac{\partial L}{ \partial q}[/itex]
I often find myself saying this:
[itex]\frac{\partial \dot{q}}{ \partial q}=0[/itex]
But why is it true? And is it always true?
When I take the derivatives of the Lagrangian, specifically of the form:
[itex]\frac{\partial L}{ \partial q}[/itex]
I often find myself saying this:
[itex]\frac{\partial \dot{q}}{ \partial q}=0[/itex]
But why is it true? And is it always true?
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