- #1
Simfish
Gold Member
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Can anyone give a user-friendly explanation?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Negative_binomial_distribution#Properties
We see that the binomial distribution measures the probability of X successes after n trials, whereas the negative binomial measures the probability of the trial number after the Xth success. The question is - how does this relate to an inverse? How would the word "inverse" simplify the analogy?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Negative_binomial_distribution#Properties
We see that the binomial distribution measures the probability of X successes after n trials, whereas the negative binomial measures the probability of the trial number after the Xth success. The question is - how does this relate to an inverse? How would the word "inverse" simplify the analogy?