- #1
trelek2
- 88
- 0
Hi!
I need an explanation:
Is the momentum operator for a free particle with a definite momentum and energy the same as what we know as the momentum operator in general?
Is it just -ih/2PI()*partial/partial_x?
With the justification that since the momentum is definite, delta p is 0, but delta x must go to infinity so differentiating wrt. x gives
(momentum_operator)*wave_func.=momentum*wave func?
If anyone could clarify I'd be grateful:)
I need an explanation:
Is the momentum operator for a free particle with a definite momentum and energy the same as what we know as the momentum operator in general?
Is it just -ih/2PI()*partial/partial_x?
With the justification that since the momentum is definite, delta p is 0, but delta x must go to infinity so differentiating wrt. x gives
(momentum_operator)*wave_func.=momentum*wave func?
If anyone could clarify I'd be grateful:)