- #1
AlonsoMcLaren
- 90
- 2
Why do we say that Galileo's experiment at Pisa is an illustration of Equivalence Principle?
All we know is that
G* (mass of earth)*(gravitational mass of object)/(R^2) = (intertial mass of object)*a
Therefore,
a=G* (mass of earth)*(gravitational mass of object)/(R^2 * (inertial mass of object))
The experiment shows that a does not change for different objects.
But this only guarantees that (gravitational mass of object)/(inertial mass of object)= a constant, which is not necessarily 1.
All we know is that
G* (mass of earth)*(gravitational mass of object)/(R^2) = (intertial mass of object)*a
Therefore,
a=G* (mass of earth)*(gravitational mass of object)/(R^2 * (inertial mass of object))
The experiment shows that a does not change for different objects.
But this only guarantees that (gravitational mass of object)/(inertial mass of object)= a constant, which is not necessarily 1.