- #1
ndung200790
- 519
- 0
Please teach me this:
Why the naively divergence of a diagram is ln(lambda) (where lambda is ultraviolet cutoff) when the superficial degree of divergence D=0(the divergence of lambda^D when D=0)).I am reading the renormalization theory in Schroeder&Peskin and I do not understand this.I do know that sometimes this naive divergence is failed because some reasons.But I really do not understand this''naive'' divergence.
Thank you very much in advanced.
Why the naively divergence of a diagram is ln(lambda) (where lambda is ultraviolet cutoff) when the superficial degree of divergence D=0(the divergence of lambda^D when D=0)).I am reading the renormalization theory in Schroeder&Peskin and I do not understand this.I do know that sometimes this naive divergence is failed because some reasons.But I really do not understand this''naive'' divergence.
Thank you very much in advanced.