- #1
Sumanta
- 26
- 0
Hi ,
This is not a homework problem as I have long passed out of college. I was trying to understand why or where would the problem arise in the definition of the direct sum for the coproduct/direct sum for the set (1, 1, 1, ...) infinite number of times. I was trying to reason out as follows.
(1, 1, 1, ...)[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] Y
[itex]\uparrow[/itex]
f[itex]_{i}[/itex][itex]\rightarrow[/itex] YPls note that the Y is the same as I cannot write the angular arrow.
Now if I say that f[itex]_{i}[/itex] acting on (e[itex]_{i}[/itex]) maps it to ( 0, 0, ...1 at the ith coordinate , 0, ...) then what is the place where I am making a mistake. The problem as I see is that either the map from the set (1, 1, 1, ...) to Y is either not unique or map from f[itex]_{i}[/itex][itex]\rightarrow[/itex] Y does not give the same value as the other path. I am really not sure which is the one and why.
Thx
This is not a homework problem as I have long passed out of college. I was trying to understand why or where would the problem arise in the definition of the direct sum for the coproduct/direct sum for the set (1, 1, 1, ...) infinite number of times. I was trying to reason out as follows.
(1, 1, 1, ...)[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] Y
[itex]\uparrow[/itex]
f[itex]_{i}[/itex][itex]\rightarrow[/itex] YPls note that the Y is the same as I cannot write the angular arrow.
Now if I say that f[itex]_{i}[/itex] acting on (e[itex]_{i}[/itex]) maps it to ( 0, 0, ...1 at the ith coordinate , 0, ...) then what is the place where I am making a mistake. The problem as I see is that either the map from the set (1, 1, 1, ...) to Y is either not unique or map from f[itex]_{i}[/itex][itex]\rightarrow[/itex] Y does not give the same value as the other path. I am really not sure which is the one and why.
Thx
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