- #1
azizlwl
- 1,066
- 10
If the ball were rolling uphill, the force of friction would still be
directed uphill as in FJg. 1O.19b. Can you see why'?
http://img252.imageshack.us/img252/4516/rollingm.jpg
I always assume the friction is always in opposite direction of the motion.
directed uphill as in FJg. 1O.19b. Can you see why'?
http://img252.imageshack.us/img252/4516/rollingm.jpg
I always assume the friction is always in opposite direction of the motion.
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