- #1
carbon9
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Hi all,
I have studied the Landauer's formula from the book "Current at the Nanoscale", but a formula made me confused. In the general case, for a nanoscopic transport, the book gives the formula:
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/2986/33768834.jpg
In the following paragragraph it is told:
"For 1-D case, (current density has no meaning in 1D, so we replace J with I)"
and then it gives
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/8793/23920600.jpg
From these equations I understand that he used
D(E)=1/(2[tex]\pi[/tex])
for 1D system (I may be wrong!). But in the previous chapters, he gives another function for D(E) in 1D:
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/734/75994918.jpg
So, what is the point that I'm missing here?
Thanks in advance,
Cheers
I have studied the Landauer's formula from the book "Current at the Nanoscale", but a formula made me confused. In the general case, for a nanoscopic transport, the book gives the formula:
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/2986/33768834.jpg
In the following paragragraph it is told:
"For 1-D case, (current density has no meaning in 1D, so we replace J with I)"
and then it gives
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/8793/23920600.jpg
From these equations I understand that he used
D(E)=1/(2[tex]\pi[/tex])
for 1D system (I may be wrong!). But in the previous chapters, he gives another function for D(E) in 1D:
http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/734/75994918.jpg
So, what is the point that I'm missing here?
Thanks in advance,
Cheers
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