- #1
Riam
- 6
- 0
Please I need your help in this question. I don't know how to answer it.
The question: Show that X [itex]\subset[/itex] [itex]\Re^n [/itex] has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0 there exists an infinite sequence of balls
B_i ={ x [itex]\in[/itex] R^n| |x-a_i | < r_i} with [itex]\sum[/itex] < ε such that X [itex]\subset[/itex] [itex]\cup[/itex]_{i=1} ^[itex]\infty[/itex] B_i
The question: Show that X [itex]\subset[/itex] [itex]\Re^n [/itex] has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0 there exists an infinite sequence of balls
B_i ={ x [itex]\in[/itex] R^n| |x-a_i | < r_i} with [itex]\sum[/itex] < ε such that X [itex]\subset[/itex] [itex]\cup[/itex]_{i=1} ^[itex]\infty[/itex] B_i
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