- #1
tonebone10
- 4
- 0
How can I use the following definition to prove that the limit as n --> infinity of (n!)/(n^n) is 0 :
the sequence {an}-->a if
For all epsilon>0, there exists an N element of natural nos. such that for all n> or = to N, abs value(an-a)<epsilon
the sequence {an}-->a if
For all epsilon>0, there exists an N element of natural nos. such that for all n> or = to N, abs value(an-a)<epsilon