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student34
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In my very limited mathematical knowledge, at first the answer seems to be as N →∞ 1/N which we know equals zero. But, what if the number is 7, and that is what was picked?
coolul007 said:do you mean mentally? "I'm thinking of a number." or do you mean out of a drum, etc. If it's a physical draw you have the answer, if it is a mental game then the number chosen is the finite set, and then becomes a chicken and egg problem. Which came first the finite set or the number chosen that created the finite set.
micromass said:If you want to talk about a probability of doing something, then you need to have a probability distribution. So, what is the distribution you're using?
Also, probability 0 doesn't mean that something is impossible.
Is there no uniform distribution because there is no midpoint?MarneMath said:Saying that the natural numbers have a uniform distribution from 1 to infinity doesn't even really make sense. Last time I checked there is no uniform distribution on the natural numbers.
student34 said:Are you saying that there are different kinds of 0 probabilities? Is an impossible probability like saying: what is the probability of 6 being the right number out of numbers 1 to 5?
dm164 said:This is an interesting question more philosophical perhaps. So, what is the probability of any number? well it would have to be 0 based on the limit lim N→∞ 1/N. Like what is the probability I would say a number never in all history been said or written? Well it would still be 0. But, the probability must be increasing if I exclude all numbers been said. So first it is probability of zero, but it's increasing. But, infinite is what I like to call the a dynamic number, so even when you remove a number it has a replacement in the sense that it's infinite. Any way you look at it. It is most reasonable to conclude a probability of 0 does not mean it's impossible, but then what does a probability of 1 mean? ... This is where the universe ends.
Do YOU understand that this is NOT always true? And every answer here has been saying that.utkarshraj said:Probability 0 means that it sure that the event "will not" happen, e.g. like probability of getting a red ball from bag of blue and green balls.
Probability 1 means that it is sure that event "will" happen, e.g. like probability of getting 2 red balls from bag of 2 red balls
But what your question is little strange, because probability cannot be taken from indefinite sets there has to be a finite set of reference.
Are you understanding this...
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A natural number is any number that is positive and whole, including 0. It is often denoted by the symbol "N". Examples of natural numbers include 1, 2, 3, 4, and so on.
There are infinitely many natural numbers because there is no highest natural number. This is because for any natural number, there is always a larger natural number.
The probability of picking a specific natural number is 0, since there are infinitely many natural numbers and only one specific number can be picked at a time.
Yes, there is a pattern to the natural numbers. They follow a sequential order starting from 1 and increasing by 1 each time (1, 2, 3, 4...). This pattern continues infinitely.
Natural numbers are used in science to count and measure quantities. They are also used in mathematical equations and models to describe natural phenomena. Natural numbers are an essential part of many scientific fields, including physics, chemistry, and biology.