- #1
R-ckay
- 4
- 0
hi all please help me... I'm learning schrodinger equation of a particle in a 1-dimensional box. I read a quantum mechanics book written by A. C Phillips. the wavefuction is
ψ (x,t)= N sin (kx) e-iEt/hbar
but when I compared to what I read from a modern physics book written by Beisser. the wavefunction is:
d2ψ/dx2 + 2m/hbar E ψ
=0
and the solution is:
ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)
and we only use:
ψ =N sin (kx) only,
it is different. and I got trouble when I tried to find momentum probability. because it is different. which one is true?
my question is:
1.where "e-iEt/hbar" comes from?
2. how to get the solution "
ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)" from
d2ψ/dx2 + 2m/hbar E ψ
= 0
thank you very much for help.. :)
ψ (x,t)= N sin (kx) e-iEt/hbar
but when I compared to what I read from a modern physics book written by Beisser. the wavefunction is:
d2ψ/dx2 + 2m/hbar E ψ
=0
and the solution is:
ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)
and we only use:
ψ =N sin (kx) only,
it is different. and I got trouble when I tried to find momentum probability. because it is different. which one is true?
my question is:
1.where "e-iEt/hbar" comes from?
2. how to get the solution "
ψ=A sin ((√2mE)/hbar)x + B cos ((√2mE)/hbar)" from
d2ψ/dx2 + 2m/hbar E ψ
= 0
thank you very much for help.. :)