- #1
evilcman
- 41
- 2
If we consider the following Lagrangian:
L = m * (dot x)^2 / 2 - e A dot x - e phi
with A the vectorpotential and phithe scalar potential, then
the Euler-Lagrange equations, reduce to the known formula
of Lorentz-force:
m ddot x = e dot x X B + e E
know, this equation is invariant under gauge transformations:
A->A + nabla F
phi -> phi - parcd phi / parcd t
Know this is great, but if we construct the Hamiltonian with the
usual Legendre transform we will get
H = (p+eA)^2 / 2m + e phi
My problem with this is, if a write the (Hamiltonian) equation of
motion now, it seems gauge dependent:
dot x = (p + eA)/m
Isn't this a problem? What's the resolution?
L = m * (dot x)^2 / 2 - e A dot x - e phi
with A the vectorpotential and phithe scalar potential, then
the Euler-Lagrange equations, reduce to the known formula
of Lorentz-force:
m ddot x = e dot x X B + e E
know, this equation is invariant under gauge transformations:
A->A + nabla F
phi -> phi - parcd phi / parcd t
Know this is great, but if we construct the Hamiltonian with the
usual Legendre transform we will get
H = (p+eA)^2 / 2m + e phi
My problem with this is, if a write the (Hamiltonian) equation of
motion now, it seems gauge dependent:
dot x = (p + eA)/m
Isn't this a problem? What's the resolution?