- #1
elduderino
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This is a basic question in angular momentum in quantum mechanics that I am studying.
I know that [tex]\frac{1}{2}\otimes \frac{1}{2} = 1\oplus 0[/tex] What would be a strategy to proving the general statement for spin representations [tex]j\otimes s =\bigoplus_{l=|s-j|}^{|s+j|} l[/tex]
I know that [tex]\frac{1}{2}\otimes \frac{1}{2} = 1\oplus 0[/tex] What would be a strategy to proving the general statement for spin representations [tex]j\otimes s =\bigoplus_{l=|s-j|}^{|s+j|} l[/tex]