- #1
Chewy0087
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hey there, my question is just regarding non-linear resistors, basically if you had a situation whereby the current through a non-linear resistor is given by
[tex]I = 0.5 V^2[/tex]
and you know the current through it (and thereby it's voltage), so for arguments sake current = 2A and therefore voltage = 2V. at this point, would the "resistance" of the resistor still obey Ohms law? so would therefore be 1 ohm (at this current)? or would it simply be the case that it has no "resistance" at all? or it's "resistance" is the fact that I = 0.5 V^2...
thanks in advance, it's quite a simple problem but i just thought of it
[tex]I = 0.5 V^2[/tex]
and you know the current through it (and thereby it's voltage), so for arguments sake current = 2A and therefore voltage = 2V. at this point, would the "resistance" of the resistor still obey Ohms law? so would therefore be 1 ohm (at this current)? or would it simply be the case that it has no "resistance" at all? or it's "resistance" is the fact that I = 0.5 V^2...
thanks in advance, it's quite a simple problem but i just thought of it
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