- #1
back2square1
- 13
- 0
This should be simple but I know I'm going wrong somewhere and I can't figure out where.
The curl of a electric field is zero,
i.e. [itex]\vec { \nabla } \times \vec { E } = 0[/itex]
Because , no set of charge, regardless of their size and position could ever produce a field whose curl is not zero.
But,
Maxwell's 3rd Equation tells us that,
the curl of a electric field is equal to the negative partial time derivative of magnetic field [itex] \vec {B}[/itex].
i.e. [itex]\vec { \nabla } \times \vec { E } = -\frac { \partial }{ \partial t } \vec { B } [/itex]
So is the curl zero or is it not? If we equate those two equations we get that the time derivative of magnetic field is zero. What's wrong? What am I missing?
The curl of a electric field is zero,
i.e. [itex]\vec { \nabla } \times \vec { E } = 0[/itex]
Because , no set of charge, regardless of their size and position could ever produce a field whose curl is not zero.
But,
Maxwell's 3rd Equation tells us that,
the curl of a electric field is equal to the negative partial time derivative of magnetic field [itex] \vec {B}[/itex].
i.e. [itex]\vec { \nabla } \times \vec { E } = -\frac { \partial }{ \partial t } \vec { B } [/itex]
So is the curl zero or is it not? If we equate those two equations we get that the time derivative of magnetic field is zero. What's wrong? What am I missing?