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cookiesyum
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Homework Statement
Is it always true that
lim f(x) x-->infinity = lim f(1/t)t --> 0
lim f(x)x--> 0 = lim f(1/n)n-->infinity
The Attempt at a Solution
How can you begin to prove or disprove these statements if you don't know what f is doing to x. In other words, lim f(x) could not exist or it could depending on what f(x) is doing to the x's right? So from where do I start?