# derivation of electric potential due to point charge

by Sumedh
Tags: charge, derivation, electric, point, potential
 P: 62 Electric potential is the work done in moving a unit charge from infinity to a point in an electric field. Electric potential due to point charge: $V=-\int \vec{E}\cdot d\vec{s}$ $V=-\int E\cdot ds cos \vartheta$ if the stationary charge is positive and if the test charge is is moved from infinity to point P then $V=-\int E\cdot ds cos 180$ $V=-KQ \int \frac {1}{r^2} ds cos 180$ now how to solve further as stationary charge is positive the electric field is outward i.e. from p to infinity and movement of charge is from infinity to P specially the signs and the direction of the field and the direction of ds and definite integration from P to infinity or from infinity to P? please give some imaginary picture or idea of how the test charge moves I am confused with it please help. Attached Thumbnails
 P: 3,015 If the angle between E and ds is 180o, then, where in what direction is ds directed?
 P: 62 from infinity towards Q now i have attached an image in the original post
P: 3,015

## derivation of electric potential due to point charge

Yes, but how do we call this direction? It has a "special relation" to one of the variables in your equations.
 P: 62 it should have relation with $\frac {1}{r^2}$
 P: 3,015 Yes. How do we call a straight line starting from a point a going to infinity?
 P: 62 i imagined that it may be a straight line i.e. the shortest distance between infinity and P
 P: 3,015 This straight line is called a ray, and the direction is called radial direction. On it, $ds = dr$. You need to use this.
 P: 62 I am confused with the signs and directions of ds ,dr and test charge and also how work done by external element is negative of work done by electric field.
 Sci Advisor Thanks P: 2,132 I never understood, why integration in tensor calculus is obscured by some awkward notation. I guess, many textbook writers think, it's more intuitive to work with angles instead of vectors, but that's not true. To calculate a line integral, it's much more convenient to use the definition of that type of integral. Let $\vec{V}(\vec{x})$ be a vector field, defined in some domain of $\mathbb{R}^3$ and $C: \lambda \in \mathbb{R} \supseteq (a,b) \mapsto \vec{x}(\lambda) \in \mathbb{R}^3$ with values in the definition domain of $\vec{V}$. Then the line integral over the vector field along the path $C$ is defined as $$\int_C \mathrm{d} \vec{x} \cdot \vec{V}(\vec{x})=\int_{a}^{b} \mathrm{d} \lambda \frac{\mathrm{d} \vec{x}(\lambda)}{\mathrm{d} \lambda} \cdot \vec{V}[\vec{x}(\lambda)].$$
 P: 17 The lines of forces are very simple in this case. Now you don't have to worry about the signs and angles here. Just simply use the formula for moving a charge through an electric field and you'll get it. I hope this helps. Thank you.

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