Proof affine function as matrix equation

AI Thread Summary
An affine function can be expressed in the form f(x) = Ax + b, where A is a matrix and b is a vector. To prove that any affine function fits this representation, one can define a new function g(x) = f(x) - f(0) and show that g is linear. This involves applying the definition of an affine function to specific cases, such as when y = 0. The discussion emphasizes the importance of correctly using terms like "prove" instead of "proof" in mathematical contexts. Overall, the focus is on demonstrating the linearity of the adjusted function to establish the desired representation.
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Homework Statement



Proof that any affine function can be written as f(x) = Ax + b, A \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n} and x,y \in \mathbb{R}^n, b \in \mathbb{R}^m

Homework Equations



Affine function: f(\alpha x + \beta y) = \alpha f(x) + \beta f(y) with \alpha+\beta=1

The Attempt at a Solution



I could proof that the function f(x)=Ax + b is affine.

However, I am stuck proofing that any affine function can be represented so.
Any pointer how I can start here?
 
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divB said:

Homework Statement



Proof that any affine function can be written as f(x) = Ax + b, A \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n} and x,y \in \mathbb{R}^n, b \in \mathbb{R}^m

Homework Equations



Affine function: f(\alpha x + \beta y) = \alpha f(x) + \beta f(y) with \alpha+\beta=1

The Attempt at a Solution



I could proof that the function f(x)=Ax + b is affine.

However, I am stuck proofing that any affine function can be represented so.
Any pointer how I can start here?

Define the function g(x)=f(x)-f(0) and try to prove g is linear.
 
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divB said:

Homework Statement



Proof that any affine function can be written as f(x) = Ax + b, A \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times n} and x,y \in \mathbb{R}^n, b \in \mathbb{R}^m

Homework Equations



Affine function: f(\alpha x + \beta y) = \alpha f(x) + \beta f(y) with \alpha+\beta=1

The Attempt at a Solution



I could proof that the function f(x)=Ax + b is affine.

However, I am stuck proofing that any affine function can be represented so.
Any pointer how I can start here?

The word you want is 'prove', not proof. To prove something is to supply a proof.

Anyway, to start, apply your definition of "affine" to the case of ##x \in \mathbb{R}^n## and ## y = 0 \in \mathbb{R}^n##.
 
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Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
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