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I am reading "An Introduction to Mechanics" by Kleppner and Kolenkow (2014). On page 241 is the definition of the angular momentum:
"Here is the formal definition of the angular momentum $$\vec{L}$$ of a particle that has momentum $$\vec{p}$$ and is at position $$\vec{r}$$ with respect to a given coordinate system: $$\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}$$"
In the book there is no explanation why this formula should be true. From this equation the formulas for torque and moment of inertia are derived.
My question is: Why is the formula above correct? Why isn't the formula for angular momentum something completely different, like $$\vec{L}=\sqrt{(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{p})2\pi M}$$? Is the formula for angular momentum just an arbitrary definition? If not, how to derive it? How did people come across that particular formula?
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If anyone read the book mentioned above: Is there any derivation that I haven't found?
"Here is the formal definition of the angular momentum $$\vec{L}$$ of a particle that has momentum $$\vec{p}$$ and is at position $$\vec{r}$$ with respect to a given coordinate system: $$\vec{L}=\vec{r} \times \vec{p}$$"
In the book there is no explanation why this formula should be true. From this equation the formulas for torque and moment of inertia are derived.
My question is: Why is the formula above correct? Why isn't the formula for angular momentum something completely different, like $$\vec{L}=\sqrt{(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{p})2\pi M}$$? Is the formula for angular momentum just an arbitrary definition? If not, how to derive it? How did people come across that particular formula?
================================================
If anyone read the book mentioned above: Is there any derivation that I haven't found?