- #1
nikozm
- 54
- 0
Hi, I would like to know if the inequality sign plays any role to the following optimization problem:
minimize f0(x)
subject to f1(x)>=0
where both f0(x) and f1(x) are convex. The standard form of these problems require a constraint such as: f1(x)<=0, but i am interested in the opposite condition (f1(x)>=0) and solving it using the standard Lagrangian method and KKT conditions. Is this right?
Any help would be useful. Thanks in advance!
minimize f0(x)
subject to f1(x)>=0
where both f0(x) and f1(x) are convex. The standard form of these problems require a constraint such as: f1(x)<=0, but i am interested in the opposite condition (f1(x)>=0) and solving it using the standard Lagrangian method and KKT conditions. Is this right?
Any help would be useful. Thanks in advance!