Does the wavefunction evolve only to the future?

In summary, it is said that the pure fundamental theories do not contain any arrow of time, they are fully reversible in time. However, regarding Shrodinger's equation, it describes the evolution of the wavefunction in time. As I understand it, if we consider a static particle after a measurement, let's say event A, its wavefunction will start spreading from that spacetime event location in a spherical shape at the speed of light until it undergoes a new measurement, at which the wavefunction sphere will collapse at some point given probabilistically by the equation. Is such a sphere expanding at light speed truly spherical, pointing also towards the past as well as to the future? So that there would be a probability of the next
  • #1
Gerinski
323
15
Layman here. It is often said that the pure fundamental theories do not contain any arrow of time, they are fully reversible in time.

But regarding Shrodinger's equation, it describes the evolution of the wavefunction in time. As I understand it, if we consider a static particle after a measurement, let's say event A, its wavefunction will start spreading from that spacetime event location in a spherical shape at the speed of light until it undergoes a new measurement, at which the wavefunction sphere will collapse at some point given probabilistically by the equation.

Is such a sphere expanding at light speed truly spherical, pointing also towards the past as well as to the future? So that there would be a probability of the next measurement finding that particle in a spacetime coordinate which lies in the past of event A, as much as finding it in a spacetime coordinate which lies in the future of event A?

Because if the answer is no, that the wavefunction evolution is not really a sphere, but only a hemisphere from event A towards the future but not towards the past, wouldn't it mean that the very arrow of time is already contained in such a wavefunction evolution equation? Selecting that only coordinates in the future can be canditates to finding the particle from event A, but never coordinates in the past?

Thanks !
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Hello intermediate layman,

You are mixing up tidbits from QM with tidbits from relativity. If the detection of a particle is event A, the next detection is an event in the future of A. Hence the word next.

Wavefuctions do not spread with the speed of light.

And the Schroedinger equation doesn't say anything about the direction of time. You can replace t by -t and all you have to do is put that sign on the other side too.
 
  • #3
BvU said:
the Schroedinger equation doesn't say anything about the direction of time.
But he was talking about measurement to make his case.

The measurement process, however, is a dissipative process that prefers a time direction since it only works from the past towards the future.

Thus while the fundamental processes (described by relativistic quantum field theory) are reversible in time, measurement is not a fundamental process. It involves approximations that are valid only under the assumption of the observed arrow of time and a corresponding increase of entropy with time.
 
  • Like
Likes Jilang, dextercioby, vanhees71 and 1 other person
  • #4
Quantum evolution is reversible. The rest not so.
 
  • #5
Yes, if you include collapse, wave function evolution is not time reversible.

Whether the unitary, time reversible Schroedinger evolution is more fundamental than collapse is a matter of interpretation.
 
  • #6
atyy said:
Whether the unitary, time reversible Schroedinger evolution is more fundamental than collapse is a matter of interpretation.
No.

One can derive collapse in open systems related to measurement as an approximation form unitary dynamics, while one cannot derive the unitary, time reversible Schroedinger evolution from collapse but has to postulate it in addition. This tells what is fundamental.

Moreover, collapse is tied to measurement, and it is not even possible to say on the fundamental level what the latter means without having already a valid dynamics.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes vanhees71
  • #7
A. Neumaier said:
No.

One can derive collapse in open systems related to measurement as an approximation form unitary dynamics, while one cannot derive he unitary, time reversible Schroedinger evolution form collapse but has to postulate it in addition. This tells what is fundamental.

Moreover, collapse is tied to measurement, and it is not even possible to say on the fundamental level what the latter means without having already a valid dynamics.

Sorry, don't agree.
 
  • #8
atyy said:
Sorry, don't agree.
What does it mean to measure a position, in fundamental terms?
What counts as a measurement?
When precisely does the measurement happen?
Is it instantaneous or does it take time?
If the latter, at which time does the collapse happen?
Is is objective, or does it depend on the judgment of an observer?
Which observer?
If unobserved, does a system collapse?
Why, if it depends on measurement?
Before the first physicist existed to take a measurement, was there collapse?
If yes, on the basis of what did the collapses happen?
If no, why do we base our theory of stellar evolution on dissipative laws?

Lots of unresolved and basically unsolvable questions if measurement and collapse are taken as fundamental!
This doesn't make collapse an acceptable basis for a fundamental process.

Of course you may disagree, but then your understanding of what is fundamental is very strange.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes vanhees71 and dextercioby

1. What is the wavefunction and how does it relate to time evolution?

The wavefunction is a mathematical representation of a quantum system that describes the probability of finding the system in a certain state. The time evolution of the wavefunction describes how it changes over time as the system evolves.

2. Does the wavefunction only evolve towards the future?

Yes, according to the laws of quantum mechanics, the wavefunction can only evolve in one direction - towards the future. This is because the wavefunction is determined by the initial conditions of the system and the laws of physics dictate that it can only move forward in time.

3. Can the wavefunction evolve backwards in time?

No, the concept of time reversal is not applicable to the wavefunction. In quantum mechanics, the laws of physics are time-symmetric, meaning they are the same whether time is moving forwards or backwards. However, the wavefunction can only evolve in one direction - towards the future.

4. What happens if the wavefunction is measured or observed?

When the wavefunction is measured or observed, it collapses into a definite state. This means that the system is no longer described by a probability distribution, but instead by a single state. The time evolution of the wavefunction is then determined by the laws of physics for that specific state.

5. Is the wavefunction deterministic or probabilistic?

The wavefunction itself is deterministic, as it follows specific mathematical rules and equations. However, the interpretation of the wavefunction in terms of the probability of finding a system in a certain state is probabilistic. This means that while the wavefunction can only evolve towards the future deterministically, the outcome of a measurement or observation is probabilistic.

Similar threads

Replies
16
Views
1K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
1
Views
945
Replies
3
Views
723
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
14
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • Quantum Interpretations and Foundations
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • Special and General Relativity
2
Replies
58
Views
3K
  • Quantum Physics
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
780
Back
Top