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This is an example from "Noether's Theorem" by Neuenschwander. Chapter 5, example 4, page 74-75.
He gives the Lagrangian for a charged particle in an electromagnetic field:
##L=\frac12 m \dot {\vec{r}}^2+e \dot{\vec{r}} \cdot \vec{A} -eV##
And claims invariance invariance under the transformation:
##t'=t(1+\epsilon); \ x^{\mu'}=x^{\mu}(1+\frac12 \epsilon)##
And gives ##\frac12 \vec{p} \cdot \vec{r} - Ht## as the conserved quantity, where ##\vec{p} = m\dot{\vec{r}} + e\vec{A}##
First, I didn't see any way this was going to work out in general. Then, I considered the electric field associated with a charged particle:
##\vec{A} = 0; \ V = \frac{V_0}{r}##
And, that doesn't lead to the required invariance, as far as I can see.
Any ideas?
He gives the Lagrangian for a charged particle in an electromagnetic field:
##L=\frac12 m \dot {\vec{r}}^2+e \dot{\vec{r}} \cdot \vec{A} -eV##
And claims invariance invariance under the transformation:
##t'=t(1+\epsilon); \ x^{\mu'}=x^{\mu}(1+\frac12 \epsilon)##
And gives ##\frac12 \vec{p} \cdot \vec{r} - Ht## as the conserved quantity, where ##\vec{p} = m\dot{\vec{r}} + e\vec{A}##
First, I didn't see any way this was going to work out in general. Then, I considered the electric field associated with a charged particle:
##\vec{A} = 0; \ V = \frac{V_0}{r}##
And, that doesn't lead to the required invariance, as far as I can see.
Any ideas?