- #1
chub
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Homework Statement
[tex] f, \hat{f} \in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)[/tex]
Homework Equations
[tex] \hat{f} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(x) e^{-2\pi i \xi \cdot x} \,dx [/tex]
[tex] \check{f} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \hat{f}(x) e^{2\pi i \xi \cdot x} \,d\xi [/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
As [tex] C_c^\infty \subset \mathcal{S} [/tex] (the Schwarz space) we know that the Fourier transformation is invertible, and that
[tex] f = (\hat{f})\check{} = (\check{f})\hat{} [/tex]
in other words
[tex] f =
\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \hat{f} e^{2 \pi i \xi \cdot x} \,d\xi
= \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \check{f} e^{-2 \pi i \xi \cdot x} \,dx [/tex]
Somehow these must be zero. I am familiar with the idea that the smoother f is, the faster its transform must decay at infinity; and vice versa. Since [tex]C^\infty, C_c[/tex] are the ultimate of both this must somehow indicate that the situation is "too good to be true" in a nontrivial way. But I do not know how to implement this. Advice?