How can I simplify this integral using integration by parts?

  • MHB
  • Thread starter ra_forever8
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Integration
In summary, we are given the integral $I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt$ and are asked to show that $I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})$ as $x\rightarrow0$. Using integration by parts, we can expand $I(x)$ in a McLaurin series and find that the first term is $I(0)=4$ and the second term is $I^{\ '} (0)=\frac{8}{\pi}$. This is obtained by differentiating the integral with respect to $x$ and evaluating at $x=0
  • #1
ra_forever8
129
0
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
First represent the integrand as $f(t)+xg(t)+O(x^2)$.
 
  • #3
grandy said:
Consider the integral
\begin{equation}
I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) e^{xcos[\pi (t-1)/2]} dt
\end{equation}
show that
\begin{equation}
I(x)= 4+ \frac{8}{\pi}x +O(x^{2})
\end{equation}
as $x\rightarrow0$.=> Using integration by parts, but its too complicated for me because of huge exponential term.
please help me.

If You expand I(x) in McLaurin series You have...

$\displaystyle I(x) = I(0) + I^{\ '} (0)\ x + \mathcal{O} (x^{2})\ (1)$

The first term is...

$\displaystyle I(0) = \int_{0}^{2} (1 + t)\ d t = 4\ (2)$

The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t = - \frac{2}{\pi^{2}}\ | \pi\ (1+ t)\ \cos ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t )- 2\ \sin ( \frac{\pi}{2}\ t) |_{0}^{2} = \frac{8}{\pi}\ (3) $

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #4
That was so clear. you made the solution so easy to understand. Thank you very much sir.
 
  • #5
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.
 
  • #6
grandy said:
The $\displaystyle I^{\ '} (x)$ can be obtained deriving into the integral and is...

$\displaystyle I^{\ '} (0) = \int_{0}^{2} \cos [\frac{\pi}{2}\ (t-1)]\ (1 + t)\ d t $

how did you get the above term or $I'(x)$ term?
please clarify me. other than that everything is perfect.

chisigma used this: Differentiation under the integral sign - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

He differentiated wrt $x$.
 

1. How do I know when to use integration by parts?

The integration by parts method is typically used when the integral involves a product of two functions, with one function being easier to integrate than the other.

2. What is the formula for integration by parts?

The formula for integration by parts is ∫ u dv = uv - ∫ v du, where u and v are functions and du and dv are their differentials.

3. What is the process for solving an integral using integration by parts?

The process for solving an integral using integration by parts involves selecting u and dv, finding du and v, plugging these values into the formula, and then evaluating the resulting integral.

4. Can I use integration by parts more than once?

Yes, it is possible to use integration by parts multiple times in order to simplify a complex integral. However, it is important to carefully choose the functions u and v to avoid an infinite loop.

5. Is there a way to check my answer when using integration by parts?

Yes, you can check your answer by taking the derivative of the resulting integral. If the derivative matches the original integrand, then your solution is correct.

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
931
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • General Math
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
745
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
4
Views
420
Replies
1
Views
859
  • General Math
Replies
1
Views
270
Back
Top